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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 25.06.2025 09:04

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why did Trump’s team spin the lie that Melania Trump spoke several languages? Do they not realize she can hardly speak English after living in the US for over 40 years?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

My boyfriend won’t tell me his past and it hurts me so I broke up with him what do I do?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.